Let $$a=1+\frac{{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_2}{3 !}+\frac{{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_2}{4 !}+\frac{{ }^4 \mathrm{C}_2}{5 !}+...., \mathrm{b}=1+\frac{{ }^1 \mathrm{C}_0+{ }^1 \mathrm{C}_1}{1 !}+\frac{{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_0+{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_1+{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_2}{2 !}+\frac{{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_0+{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_1+{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_2+{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_3}{3 !}+....$$ Then $\frac{2 b}{a^2}$ is equal to _________.
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Subject: Mathematics · Chapter: Binomial Theorem · Topic: Binomial Expansion
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