Hard INTEGER +4 / -1 PYQ · JEE Mains 2024

Let $$a=1+\frac{{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_2}{3 !}+\frac{{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_2}{4 !}+\frac{{ }^4 \mathrm{C}_2}{5 !}+...., \mathrm{b}=1+\frac{{ }^1 \mathrm{C}_0+{ }^1 \mathrm{C}_1}{1 !}+\frac{{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_0+{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_1+{ }^2 \mathrm{C}_2}{2 !}+\frac{{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_0+{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_1+{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_2+{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_3}{3 !}+....$$ Then $\frac{2 b}{a^2}$ is equal to _________.

Answer (integer) 8

Solution

<p>$$\begin{aligned} & a=1+\frac{{ }^2 C_2}{3!}+\frac{{ }^3 C_2}{4!}+\frac{{ }^4 C_2}{5!}+\ldots \\ & b=1+\frac{{ }^1 C_0+{ }^1 C_1}{1!}+\frac{{ }^2 C_0+{ }^2 C_1+{ }^2 C_2}{2!}+\ldots \\ & b=1+\frac{2}{1!}+\frac{2^2}{2!}+\frac{2}{3!}+\ldots=e^2 \end{aligned}$$</p> <p>Using $e^x=1+\frac{x}{1!}+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x}{3!}+\ldots$</p> <p>$$\begin{aligned} a= & 1+\sum_{r=2}^{\infty} \frac{{ }^r C_2}{(r+1)!}=1+\sum_{r=2} \frac{r(r-1)}{2(r+1)!} \\ & =1+\frac{1}{2} \sum_{r=2}^{\infty} \frac{(r+1) r-2 r}{(r+1)!} \\ & =1+\frac{1}{2} \sum_{r=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(r-1)!}-\frac{1}{2} \sum_{r=2} \frac{2 r}{(r+1)!} \\ & =1+\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}+\ldots\right)-\sum_{r=2}^{\infty} \frac{(r+1)-1}{(r+1)!} \\ & =1+\frac{1}{2}(e-1)-\sum_{r=2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{r!}+\sum_{r=2} \frac{1}{(r+1)!} \\ & =1+\frac{1}{2}(e-1)-\left(e-\frac{1}{1!}-\frac{1}{0!}\right)+\left(e-\frac{1}{1!}-\frac{1}{0!}-\frac{1}{2!}\right) \\ & =1+\frac{e}{2}-\frac{1}{2}-e+2+e-2-\frac{1}{2}=\frac{e}{2} \\ \Rightarrow & \frac{2 b}{a^2}=\frac{2}{\frac{e^2}{4}} 8 \end{aligned}$$</p>

About this question

Subject: Mathematics · Chapter: Binomial Theorem · Topic: Binomial Expansion

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