Hard MCQ +4 / -1 PYQ · JEE Mains 2024

Let $g: \mathbf{R} \rightarrow \mathbf{R}$ be a non constant twice differentiable function such that $$\mathrm{g}^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\mathrm{g}^{\prime}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)$$. If a real valued function $f$ is defined as $f(x)=\frac{1}{2}[g(x)+g(2-x)]$, then

  1. A $f^{\prime \prime}(x)=0$ for atleast two $x$ in $(0,2)$ Correct answer
  2. B $f^{\prime}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)+f^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=1$
  3. C $f^{\prime \prime}(x)=0$ for no $x$ in $(0,1)$
  4. D $f^{\prime \prime}(x)=0$ for exactly one $x$ in $(0,1)$

Solution

<p>$$f^{\prime}(x)=\frac{g^{\prime}(x)-g^{\prime}(2-x)}{2}, f^{\prime}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)=\frac{g^{\prime}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)-g^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)}{2}=0$$</p> <p>Also $$\mathrm{f}^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{\mathrm{g}^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)-\mathrm{g}^{\prime}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)}{2}=0, \mathrm{f}^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0$$</p> <p>$$\Rightarrow \mathrm{f}^{\prime}\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)=\mathrm{f}^{\prime}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=0$$</p> <p>$\Rightarrow \operatorname{rootsin}\left(\frac{1}{2}, 1\right)$ and $\left(1, \frac{3}{2}\right)$</p> <p>$\Rightarrow \mathrm{f}^{\prime \prime}(\mathrm{x})$ is zero at least twice in $\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{3}{2}\right)$</p>

About this question

Subject: Mathematics · Chapter: Differentiation · Topic: Derivatives of Standard Functions

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