If y2 + loge (cos2x) = y,
$x \in \left( { - {\pi \over 2},{\pi \over 2}} \right)$, then :
Solution
Given y<sup>2</sup> + log<sub>e</sub> (cos<sup>2</sup>x) = y .....(1)
<br><br>Put x = 0, we get
<br><br>y<sup>2</sup> + log<sub>e</sub> (1) = y
<br><br>$\Rightarrow$ y<sup>2</sup> = y
<br><br>$\Rightarrow$ y = 0, 1
<br><br>Differentiating (1) we get
<br><br>2yy' + ${1 \over {\cos x}}\left( { - \sin x} \right)$ = y'
<br><br>$\Rightarrow$ 2yy' - 2tanx = y' ....(2)
<br><br>From (2) when x = 0, y = 0 then y'(0) = 0
<br><br>From (2) when x = 0, y = 1 then
<br><br>2y' = y'
<br><br>$\Rightarrow$ y'(0) = 0
<br><br>Again differentiating (2) we get
<br><br>2(y')<sup>2</sup>
+ 2yy'' – 2sec<sup>2</sup>x = y''
<br><br>from (2) when x = 0, y = 0, y’(0) = 0 then
<br><br>y”(0) = -2
<br><br>Also from (2) when x = 0, y = 1, y’(0) = 0 then
<br><br>y”(0) = 2
<br><br>$\therefore$ |y''(0)| = 2
About this question
Subject: Mathematics · Chapter: Differentiation · Topic: Derivatives of Standard Functions
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