Medium MCQ +4 / -1 PYQ · JEE Mains 2022

If $$\frac{1}{(20-a)(40-a)}+\frac{1}{(40-a)(60-a)}+\ldots+\frac{1}{(180-a)(200-a)}=\frac{1}{256}$$, then the maximum value of $\mathrm{a}$ is :

  1. A 198
  2. B 202
  3. C 212 Correct answer
  4. D 218

Solution

<p>$${1 \over {20}}\left( {{1 \over {20 - a}} - {1 \over {40 - a}} + {1 \over {40 - a}} - {1 \over {60 - a}}\, + \,....\, + \,{1 \over {180 - a}} - {1 \over {200 - a}}} \right) = {1 \over {256}}$$</p> <p>$$ \Rightarrow {1 \over {20}}\left( {{1 \over {20 - a}} - {1 \over {200 - a}}} \right) = {1 \over {256}}$$</p> <p>$$ \Rightarrow {1 \over {20}}\left( {{{180} \over {(20 - a)(200 - a)}}} \right) = {1 \over {256}}$$</p> <p>$\Rightarrow (20 - a)(200 - a) = 9.256$</p> <p>OR ${a^2} - 220a + 1696 = 0$</p> <p>$\Rightarrow a = 212,\,8$</p>

About this question

Subject: Mathematics · Chapter: Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations · Topic: Complex Numbers and Argand Plane

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